Secularism and the medieval past

Much of the commentary on the terrible events in Paris a fortnight ago, and even more of the abundant commentary on the commentary that followed, has pivoted around the distinction between religion and the secular that is typically ascribed to the European Enlightenment. Arguments have usually boiled down to how this legacy of the Enlightenment needs to be fiercely guarded at all costs (‘European values’), or, more controversially, how it perhaps needs to be reassessed to adjust to contemporary realities (‘globalisation’).

These are of course primarily political arguments, keyed to current political positions. But they are also historical arguments, in that they both rest on a general, widely-shared view of the shape of (European) history, which for all useful purposes apparently begins with the 18th century.

In point of fact, however, the general consensus that the distinction between religion and the secular originated in the early modern period is, quite simply, not true. Doubtless it took on important new forms at that time. But most historians realise these days that supposed turning points are more historiographical than historical: that very little comes out of nowhere. A recent strand of German research, bringing together sociologists (notably Detlef Pollack) and historians, has profitably discussed whether a process of ‘differentiation’ between religion and the political sphere really began in the 11th century, with the so-called Investiture Quarrel. A similar suggestion has been made, albeit in passing, by the eminent Canadian theorist of ‘secularisation’, Charles Taylor.

Moreover, there is a venerable line of research that explores how the very concept of the ‘secular’, meaning something that is not anti-religious but rather non-religious, was honed in quite specific circumstances by 4th-century Christians as they made sense of the religious and political realities around them, as proposed by R.A. Markus and, more recently, Kate Cooper. As a consequence, modern secularism can be said to derive from a Christian worldview (not a ‘European’ one, though, since a dominant contributor to these early debates was a North African). Arguably that makes the modern concept itself inherently Christian.

Much could be written about these and other ideas. In fact, much already has been written about them in specialist circles, where they are the subjects of often heated controversy. Yet these debates have hardly registered in the copious reflections on the meaning and implications of the Paris attacks. That is not the fault of media-shy medieval historians, nor of lazy journalists content to rehash triumphalist narratives they learned at school (perhaps the most authentically long-lived product of the Enlightenment). It simply reflects the peculiar importance of the Middle Ages in the modern (European) political imaginary. It is an importance that consists, paradoxically, in not mattering at all – thereby authorising political arguments based solely on more recent history. The medieval period is never more crucial than when it acts as a foil to the present day (as pointed out by Julia McClure), and never more present than when it’s silently passed over or peremptorily dismissed.

That’s naturally aggravating for those studying these distant centuries, who find themselves condemned to a highly relevant irrelevance in wider public discourse. But isn’t this politicised depoliticisation also a pity for that public discourse, too? If we don’t realise that ‘modern values’ aren’t quite as straightforwardly modern as seems to be assumed, then the terms of debate will be hugely impoverished, even before anything has been said.

3 thoughts on “Secularism and the medieval past”

  1. Hi Charles, thanks for this blog post! It’s great and so true, particularly about the North African roots of the ‘secular’! One small point: I suspect most commentators today think about the medieval church, i.e. a religious organisation, as dictating ‘secular’ law & behaviour when they say the enlightenment got rid of that (doubtful in itself? Still bishops in the House of Commons…), but you could look at it from the other way, couldn’t you? Even though people like Augustine knew well how to distinguish between the secular and the religious it was a way to tell ‘secular’ (state) authorities about the superiority of the ‘religious’, right? That in turn implies (and I think is true) that these authorities (e.g. the emperor) did not think of themselves as ‘secular’ at all — isn’t that what is also meant by the absence of the distinction between secular and religious in the Middle Ages? That the state had the ability to make laws that pertained to the religious?

  2. Thanks Julia! Yes, that’s a great point. It is basically true that western governments don’t legislate on religious matters these days, and that’s just as important as the church not legislating on secular ones. But a) sometimes states still do (e.g. abortion, suicide, education); and b) if you buy the argument that secularism is a kind of Christianity (thus Gauchet, Asad) then their general refusal to legislate on religious matters is in itself a religious gesture…

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